MODULE 1: DYNAMIC RIDING Lessons
All lessons are on Youtube. To find your lesson, click on the time in the detail section.
Do: Lessons 1-10
Do: Practice Quiz
Write: Exam (module 1 questions)
Do: Lessons 1-10
Do: Practice Quiz
Write: Exam (module 1 questions)
Practice quiz
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STUDY first and then try the PRACTICE QUIZ. You do not have to send it in
PRACTICE QUIZ
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. The trot paces can be Ordinary, Working, and Free.
2. The bit rests behind the bars of the horse's mouth.
3. Another name for the canter is Lope.
4. Sweating after a workout means the horse was worked too hard.
5. The tail carriage should be held out straight, arched downwards and not twisted.
Multiple choice:
6. The rein of opposition is
a. Held to the outside
b. Held backward
c. Held across the neck
d. Held backwards and slightly over the neck
7. A serpentine has?
a. Has 3 voltes
b. Has 3 half circles
c. Has 3 loops to quarter line
d. Has 2 half circles and 1 three quarter circle
8. Where are the rider's seat bones?
a. Under the thighs
b. Back of the buttocks
c. Bottom of the pelvis
d. In between the thighs
9. The leg yield is
a. Forward
b. Backward
c. Forwards on a diagonal with the legs crossing in front of the other
d. Sideways with the legs crossing behind the other
10. The sidepass is
a. Forward
b. Backward
c. Sideways with the legs crossing in front of the other
d. Sideways with the legs crossing behind the other
Answers are below
Practice quiz answers: The only true answers are 3, 4, 5. Multiple Choice are 6D, 7B, 8C, 9C, 10C
WHEN YOU ARE DONE WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THE PAGE
PRACTICE QUIZ
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. The trot paces can be Ordinary, Working, and Free.
2. The bit rests behind the bars of the horse's mouth.
3. Another name for the canter is Lope.
4. Sweating after a workout means the horse was worked too hard.
5. The tail carriage should be held out straight, arched downwards and not twisted.
Multiple choice:
6. The rein of opposition is
a. Held to the outside
b. Held backward
c. Held across the neck
d. Held backwards and slightly over the neck
7. A serpentine has?
a. Has 3 voltes
b. Has 3 half circles
c. Has 3 loops to quarter line
d. Has 2 half circles and 1 three quarter circle
8. Where are the rider's seat bones?
a. Under the thighs
b. Back of the buttocks
c. Bottom of the pelvis
d. In between the thighs
9. The leg yield is
a. Forward
b. Backward
c. Forwards on a diagonal with the legs crossing in front of the other
d. Sideways with the legs crossing behind the other
10. The sidepass is
a. Forward
b. Backward
c. Sideways with the legs crossing in front of the other
d. Sideways with the legs crossing behind the other
Answers are below
Practice quiz answers: The only true answers are 3, 4, 5. Multiple Choice are 6D, 7B, 8C, 9C, 10C
WHEN YOU ARE DONE WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THE PAGE
Spanish Riding School videos
Mounted Tests
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Mounted video testingInternational Rider III ASSESSMENT TEST
Remember to salute, before you begin your test. 1. Trot a figure eight posting and changing diagonals. Perform 3 large figure eights. 2. On the rail, post the trot and then sit for exactly 7 beats then rise again. Do this each way of the arena. 3. Ride one hour glass pattern, where you canter on the rail and do a change of leg, or lead change, through trot when crossing over the center line, or ex, on the long diagonals. 4. Mounted at the halt, begin to side pass several feet to the right and pause then side pass to the left. 5. Mounted perform the leg yield to the right for at least a quarter width of the arena, and then perform it to the left. Salute to finish. |
Dressage is also a component for completion. For this rider level, you will need to send in your video tests for either Classical OR Western Dressage Bronze II test.
MODULE 2: EQUINE NUTRITION Lessons
All lessons are on Youtube. To find your lesson, click on the time in the detail section.
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Midterm
Do: Lesson 5-7
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 2 questions)
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Midterm
Do: Lesson 5-7
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 2 questions)
Midterm Exam
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it's time to write the midtermTEST YOURSELF and see how you are doing. You do not have to send the exam in. It is just for practice.
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PRACTICE TEST FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. Every animal must be free of thirst, hunger and malnutrition.
2. Water is needed for proper organ function.
3. Lipids are proteins.
4. Carbohydrates are the main component of feed.
5. Beet pulp comes from sugar production.
6. Every gram of phosphorus need 2 grams of calcium.
7. Too much calcium is toxic.
8. Legume hay has higher protein than grass hay.
9. Dandruff could be caused by a deficiency of lipids in the diet.
10. A pinch test measures the horse's hydration.
Multiple choice:
11. The upper GI tract consists of
a. Esophagus, stomach, mouth
b. Esophagus, stomach, cecum
c. Esophagus, stomach, colon
d. Stomach, colon, cecum
12. Three parts of the small intestine are
a. Bile, pancreas, cecum
b. Colon, cecum, rectum
c. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d. Stomach, pancreas, small intestine
13. Water is mostly absorbed in the
a. Colon
b. Stomach
c. Mouth
d. Small intestine
14. What kind of digestion happens in the stomach?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
15. What kind of digestion happens in the small intestine?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
16. What kind of digestion happens in the large intestine?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
17. What kind of digestion happens in the mouth?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
18. What is the purpose of water in the body?
a. Transports nutrients
b. Removes body waste
c. Controls temperature
d. All of the above
19. Diarrhea means the horse needs
a. Less water
b. More water
c. No water
d. None of the above
20. Areas of the stomach are?
a. Non-glandular
b. Cardiac
c. Fundic
d. All of the above
21. Four parts of the large colon are?
a. Right, Sternal, Left and Pelvic
b. Dorsal, Bottom, Top and Rectum
c. Big, Medium, Small and End
d. Small, Cecum, Large and Intestine
Label the Diagram:
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. Every animal must be free of thirst, hunger and malnutrition.
2. Water is needed for proper organ function.
3. Lipids are proteins.
4. Carbohydrates are the main component of feed.
5. Beet pulp comes from sugar production.
6. Every gram of phosphorus need 2 grams of calcium.
7. Too much calcium is toxic.
8. Legume hay has higher protein than grass hay.
9. Dandruff could be caused by a deficiency of lipids in the diet.
10. A pinch test measures the horse's hydration.
Multiple choice:
11. The upper GI tract consists of
a. Esophagus, stomach, mouth
b. Esophagus, stomach, cecum
c. Esophagus, stomach, colon
d. Stomach, colon, cecum
12. Three parts of the small intestine are
a. Bile, pancreas, cecum
b. Colon, cecum, rectum
c. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d. Stomach, pancreas, small intestine
13. Water is mostly absorbed in the
a. Colon
b. Stomach
c. Mouth
d. Small intestine
14. What kind of digestion happens in the stomach?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
15. What kind of digestion happens in the small intestine?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
16. What kind of digestion happens in the large intestine?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
17. What kind of digestion happens in the mouth?
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Enzymatic
d. Fermentation
18. What is the purpose of water in the body?
a. Transports nutrients
b. Removes body waste
c. Controls temperature
d. All of the above
19. Diarrhea means the horse needs
a. Less water
b. More water
c. No water
d. None of the above
20. Areas of the stomach are?
a. Non-glandular
b. Cardiac
c. Fundic
d. All of the above
21. Four parts of the large colon are?
a. Right, Sternal, Left and Pelvic
b. Dorsal, Bottom, Top and Rectum
c. Big, Medium, Small and End
d. Small, Cecum, Large and Intestine
Label the Diagram:
22. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Stomach
c. Cecum
d. Esophagus
23. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Stomach
c. Cecum
d. Esophagus
24. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Stomach
c. Cecum
d. Esophagus
25. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Stomach
c. Cecum
d. Esophagus
26. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Large Intestine
c. Cecum
d. Colon
27. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Large Intestine
c. Cecum
d. Colon
28. Is what?
a. Small Intestine
b. Rectum
c. Cecum
d. Pelvic Flexure
29. What does weight homeostasis mean?
a. Energy in is greater than energy out
b. Energy in is less than energy out
c. Energy in is more than energy out
d. Energy in equal to energy out
30. In the body water is found where?
a. Gut
b. Cells
c. Lymph
d. All of the above
Answers are below
Answers for the Midterm are: The only true answers are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10. Multiple Choice: 11A, 12C, 13A, 14A, 15C, 16D, 17B, 18D, 19B, 20D, 21A, 22D, 23B, 24A, 25C, 26B, 27D, 28B, 29D, 30D.
FEED SAMPLE ANALYSIS
Spanish Riding School Video
PRACTICE QUIZ
STUDY first and then try the Practice Quiz
PRACTICE QUIZ FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. Horses should not have by-products at all.
2. Wait 3 hours before exercising a horse who finished a meal.
3. Roughage is fiber.
4. Chemical digestion occurs in the stomach.
5. The duodenum, jejunum and ileum are part of the large intestine.
6. Ground up food and enzymes is called chum.
7. Turbidity of water is called clarity.
8. Brome is a legume hay.
9. Protein synthesis stops if one amino acid is missing.
10. Vitamins are inorganic substances.
11. A good feeding rule is to feed little and often.
12. Feed by volume not weight.
13. The mouth helps with mechanical digestion
14. Horses need a minimum of 10% lipids per day.
15. Oxidation is the body's use of oxygen.
16. Non-soluble carbohydrates are digested in the cecum.
17. Hemi-cellulose is not digested by fermentation.
18. Malnourished horses need to be fed slowly with an increase over a period of 2 weeks.
19. Hay mangers should be high.
20. Sweat consists of Calcium, Magnesium and electrolytes.
21. Areas of the stomach are Glandular, Cardus, Fundiac, and Pyloric.
22. Four parts of the large intestine are Right, Sternal, Left and Pelvic.
23. Horses can eat potatoes and onions in small amounts.
24. The order of the GI tract is Esophagus, Stomach, Colon, Cecum.
25. Vitamin E is important for changing peroxide to water, preventing White Muscle Disease, and muscle contraction.
Answers are below
Answers for the Practice Quiz are: The only true answers are 3, 4, 7, 9, 11, 13, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 25.
PRACTICE QUIZ FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. Horses should not have by-products at all.
2. Wait 3 hours before exercising a horse who finished a meal.
3. Roughage is fiber.
4. Chemical digestion occurs in the stomach.
5. The duodenum, jejunum and ileum are part of the large intestine.
6. Ground up food and enzymes is called chum.
7. Turbidity of water is called clarity.
8. Brome is a legume hay.
9. Protein synthesis stops if one amino acid is missing.
10. Vitamins are inorganic substances.
11. A good feeding rule is to feed little and often.
12. Feed by volume not weight.
13. The mouth helps with mechanical digestion
14. Horses need a minimum of 10% lipids per day.
15. Oxidation is the body's use of oxygen.
16. Non-soluble carbohydrates are digested in the cecum.
17. Hemi-cellulose is not digested by fermentation.
18. Malnourished horses need to be fed slowly with an increase over a period of 2 weeks.
19. Hay mangers should be high.
20. Sweat consists of Calcium, Magnesium and electrolytes.
21. Areas of the stomach are Glandular, Cardus, Fundiac, and Pyloric.
22. Four parts of the large intestine are Right, Sternal, Left and Pelvic.
23. Horses can eat potatoes and onions in small amounts.
24. The order of the GI tract is Esophagus, Stomach, Colon, Cecum.
25. Vitamin E is important for changing peroxide to water, preventing White Muscle Disease, and muscle contraction.
Answers are below
Answers for the Practice Quiz are: The only true answers are 3, 4, 7, 9, 11, 13, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 25.
MODULE 3: EQUINE REPRODUCTION Lessons
All lessons are on Youtube. To find your lesson, click on the time in the detail section.
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 3 questions)
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 3 questions)
Spanish Riding School Video
Practice QUIZ
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STUDY first and then try the PRACTICE QUIZ. You do not have to send it in.
|
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PRACTICE QUIZ FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. If the mare hasn't foaled within 30 minutes, call the vet.
2. Pedigree is linebreeding.
3. The vagina is the external opening of the birth canal.
4. Good stallion management is to isolate the stallion from the herd.
5. Teasing is done to see if the mare is in heat, and will be receptive to the stallion for breeding.
6. Artificial insemination means the sperm is deposited in the uterine body.
7. Young mares cannot be bred.
8. Close relations in breeding creates a susceptibility to disorders and decreased foal mortality.
9. Selective breeding means to carefully breed specific individuals.
10. A tough layer of tissue that suspends the reproductive tract is called the mesometrium.
11. Signs that the mare does not want to bred are: squealing, pinned ears, kicking.
12. The estrus cycle is consists of 21 days on average.
13. Signs of estrus are winking, kicking, moving away.
14. Estrogen hormone tells the follicle to rupture to release an egg from the ovary
15. Follicle stimulating hormone tells the ovaries to develop a follicle containing an ovum
Multiple Choice:
16. Which hormone prepares the reproductive tract for pregnancy
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
17. Which hormone helps maintain pregnancy and is also responsible for diestrus
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
18. What are characteristics of testosterone
a. Corpus hemorrhagicum
b. Arousal, erection and ejaculation
c. Smaller bodies
d. Ovulation
19. When do horse mature on average
a. 12-18 months
b. 2-3 years
c. 6-12 months
d. 18-36 months
20. Which stallion is the most productive (on average)
a. 3 year old
b. 6 year old
c. 19 year old
d. They are all the same
21. Stallions should mount a mare
a. Slightly from the right and rear
b. From straight behind
c. Slightly from the left and rear
d. From the left side
22. When does the embryo implant
a. Day 35
b. Day 40
c. Day 45
d. Day 55
23. When does the placenta start to form
a. Day 30-35
b. Day 40-45
c. Day 50-55
d. Day 60-65
24. Which hormone causes the uterus to contract to expel a foal
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Luteinizing
d. Oxytocin
25. The mare should be taken to the foaling location
a. 3-4 weeks prior to foaling
b. 1-2 weeks prior to foaling
c. 3-4 months prior to foaling
d. 2-3 months prior to foaling
26. The foaling stall should be
a. 12x12 feet
b. Lined with straw or turf
c. Free of sharp edges
d. All of the above
27. When do the croup muscles relax
a. 1-3 weeks prior
b. 1-3 days prior
c. 1-3 months prior
d. They do not
28. The mare may drip colostrum
a. 24-48 days prior
b. 24-48 hours prior
c. 12-24 weeks prior
d. 12-24 hours after
29. Stage 2 is called
a. Preparation
b. Parturition
c. Expulsion
d. Placental
30. What is the due date if the mare was bred on April 21
a. March 1
b. April 21
c. March 21
d. March 26
31. How should you thaw colostrum to use it
a. Microwave
b. On the counter in lukewarm water
c. Boil it in a pot
d. it does not matter
32. What is considered a normal presentation of the foal
a. Front feet and nose
b. One front foot and nose
c. Two hind feet
d. Nose only
33. Why is it best to observe but not disturb a foaling mare
a. She can kick or bite you if you are too close
b. She can stop stage 1
c. She can have problem if you are not there
d. All of the above
34. How soon should the foal nurse
a. Within the hour
b. Within 5-6 hours
c. Right away
d. Within 4 hours
35. What is breech
a. Abnormal position
b. Front hooves first
c. Nose first
d. None of the above
36. Why should you not pull the placenta out
a. It is still attached to the uterine lining
b. It stops milk flow
c. It needs to go back inside
d. Untrue. You can pull it out
Answers for the Practice Final are: The only true answers are 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 15. Multiple choice answers are: 16C, 17D, 18B, 19A, 20B, 21C, 22A, 23B, 24D, 25A, 26D, 27A, 28B, 29B, 30D, 31B, 32A, 33D, 34C, 35A, 36A.
WHEN YOU READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THIS PAGE
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. If the mare hasn't foaled within 30 minutes, call the vet.
2. Pedigree is linebreeding.
3. The vagina is the external opening of the birth canal.
4. Good stallion management is to isolate the stallion from the herd.
5. Teasing is done to see if the mare is in heat, and will be receptive to the stallion for breeding.
6. Artificial insemination means the sperm is deposited in the uterine body.
7. Young mares cannot be bred.
8. Close relations in breeding creates a susceptibility to disorders and decreased foal mortality.
9. Selective breeding means to carefully breed specific individuals.
10. A tough layer of tissue that suspends the reproductive tract is called the mesometrium.
11. Signs that the mare does not want to bred are: squealing, pinned ears, kicking.
12. The estrus cycle is consists of 21 days on average.
13. Signs of estrus are winking, kicking, moving away.
14. Estrogen hormone tells the follicle to rupture to release an egg from the ovary
15. Follicle stimulating hormone tells the ovaries to develop a follicle containing an ovum
Multiple Choice:
16. Which hormone prepares the reproductive tract for pregnancy
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
17. Which hormone helps maintain pregnancy and is also responsible for diestrus
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
18. What are characteristics of testosterone
a. Corpus hemorrhagicum
b. Arousal, erection and ejaculation
c. Smaller bodies
d. Ovulation
19. When do horse mature on average
a. 12-18 months
b. 2-3 years
c. 6-12 months
d. 18-36 months
20. Which stallion is the most productive (on average)
a. 3 year old
b. 6 year old
c. 19 year old
d. They are all the same
21. Stallions should mount a mare
a. Slightly from the right and rear
b. From straight behind
c. Slightly from the left and rear
d. From the left side
22. When does the embryo implant
a. Day 35
b. Day 40
c. Day 45
d. Day 55
23. When does the placenta start to form
a. Day 30-35
b. Day 40-45
c. Day 50-55
d. Day 60-65
24. Which hormone causes the uterus to contract to expel a foal
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Luteinizing
d. Oxytocin
25. The mare should be taken to the foaling location
a. 3-4 weeks prior to foaling
b. 1-2 weeks prior to foaling
c. 3-4 months prior to foaling
d. 2-3 months prior to foaling
26. The foaling stall should be
a. 12x12 feet
b. Lined with straw or turf
c. Free of sharp edges
d. All of the above
27. When do the croup muscles relax
a. 1-3 weeks prior
b. 1-3 days prior
c. 1-3 months prior
d. They do not
28. The mare may drip colostrum
a. 24-48 days prior
b. 24-48 hours prior
c. 12-24 weeks prior
d. 12-24 hours after
29. Stage 2 is called
a. Preparation
b. Parturition
c. Expulsion
d. Placental
30. What is the due date if the mare was bred on April 21
a. March 1
b. April 21
c. March 21
d. March 26
31. How should you thaw colostrum to use it
a. Microwave
b. On the counter in lukewarm water
c. Boil it in a pot
d. it does not matter
32. What is considered a normal presentation of the foal
a. Front feet and nose
b. One front foot and nose
c. Two hind feet
d. Nose only
33. Why is it best to observe but not disturb a foaling mare
a. She can kick or bite you if you are too close
b. She can stop stage 1
c. She can have problem if you are not there
d. All of the above
34. How soon should the foal nurse
a. Within the hour
b. Within 5-6 hours
c. Right away
d. Within 4 hours
35. What is breech
a. Abnormal position
b. Front hooves first
c. Nose first
d. None of the above
36. Why should you not pull the placenta out
a. It is still attached to the uterine lining
b. It stops milk flow
c. It needs to go back inside
d. Untrue. You can pull it out
Answers for the Practice Final are: The only true answers are 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 15. Multiple choice answers are: 16C, 17D, 18B, 19A, 20B, 21C, 22A, 23B, 24D, 25A, 26D, 27A, 28B, 29B, 30D, 31B, 32A, 33D, 34C, 35A, 36A.
WHEN YOU READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THIS PAGE
MODULE 4: BASIC FARRIER SCIENCE Lessons
All lessons are on Youtube. To find your lesson, click on the time in the detail section.
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Midterm
Do: Lesson 5-7
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 4 questions)
Do: Lessons 1-4
Practice: Midterm
Do: Lesson 5-7
Practice: Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 4 questions)
Midterm Exam
|
it's time to write the midtermTEST YOURSELF and see how you are doing. You do not have to send the exam in. It is just for practice.
|
PRACTICE TEST FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. A farrier is someone trained in the art of hoof trimming and shoeing.
2. It is part of your farrier's job to train the horse to hold his hoof up properly and stand still.
3. Superficial means internally and axial close.
4. Basal is the base surface.
5. To extend means to decrease the angle.
6. Hooves grow faster is warm, wet conditions.
7. The bars of the foot contain skin glands that moisten the frog.
8. The hoof hits the ground toes first.
9. The frog cushions impact.
10. The suspensory ligament protects the front of the hoof.
Multiple choice:
11. Another name for the first phalanx is
a. Cannon
b. Pastern
c. Coronary
d. Coffin
12. The joints in the hoof are
a. Ball and Socket
b. Locking
c. Saddle
d. Gingylmus
13. The digital cushion's job is to
a. Protect the fetlock
b. Cushion the coffin bone
c. Connect the pastern bone to the coronary bone
d. None of the above
14. An exhausted or weak fetlock joint may
a. Seize up
b. Come close to hitting the ground
c. Bend forward
d. None of the above
15. Epiphysis is what
a. The small bone within the foot
b. Another name for the cannon bone
c. The rounded ends of long bones
d. The tendon that holds the pastern bone done to the coffin bone
16. Plaiting is another name for
a. Limping
b. Paddling
c. Winging Out
d. Winging in
17. Another name for offset is
a. Knock Kneed
b. Stands out
c. Sickle
d. Stands under
18. Larger bone density means
a. More ability to grow
b. More ability to reproduce
c. More ability to carry weight
d. None of the above
19. Which one is part of daily care of the hooves
a. Have the farrier trim the hoof
b. Watch for dishes, cracks or flares
c. Soak the hoof in epson salt
d. Paint on hoof oil
20. The hoof's break over is
a. When the hoof needs to be trimmed
b. When the hoof needs to be shod
c. When the heels lift off the ground
d. When the toe lifts off the ground
21. The hoof angle must match the
a. Cannon angle
b. Coffin angle
c. Pastern angle
d. Haunch angle
22. A post legged horse is likely to suffer from which
a. Navicular syndrome
b. Sidebone
c. Ringbone
d. All of the above
23. A disunited canter can lead to which problem
a. Elbow hitting
b. Knee hitting
c. Scalping
d. Cross firing
24. A horse that stands over is
a. Standing with legs together
b. Camped out
c. Camped in
d. Standing hip shot
25. What is the varnish like substance that protects the hoof wall
a. Sebum
b. Varnish
c. Periwinkle
d. Periople
26. How often is the frog shed?
a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Once a month
d. Never
27. How much can a horse carry without too much stress on the body and joints.
a. 5-10% body weight
b. 10-15% body weight
c. 15-20% body weight
d. 25-35% body weight
28. Always clean the hoof
a. Toe to heel
b. Heel to toe
c. Side to side
d. Doesn't matter
29. Another name for the long pastern bone is
a. P1
b. P2
c. P3
d. Pedal bone
30. Another name for the coffin bone is
a. Pedal
b. P3
c. Distal Phalanx
d. All of the above
Answers for the Midterm are: The only true answers are 1, 4, 6, 9.
Multiple choice answers are: 11B, 12D, 13B, 14B, 15C, 16D, 17A, 18C, 19B, 20C, 21C, 22B, 23D, 24B, 25D, 26B, 27C, 28B, 29A, 30D
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. A farrier is someone trained in the art of hoof trimming and shoeing.
2. It is part of your farrier's job to train the horse to hold his hoof up properly and stand still.
3. Superficial means internally and axial close.
4. Basal is the base surface.
5. To extend means to decrease the angle.
6. Hooves grow faster is warm, wet conditions.
7. The bars of the foot contain skin glands that moisten the frog.
8. The hoof hits the ground toes first.
9. The frog cushions impact.
10. The suspensory ligament protects the front of the hoof.
Multiple choice:
11. Another name for the first phalanx is
a. Cannon
b. Pastern
c. Coronary
d. Coffin
12. The joints in the hoof are
a. Ball and Socket
b. Locking
c. Saddle
d. Gingylmus
13. The digital cushion's job is to
a. Protect the fetlock
b. Cushion the coffin bone
c. Connect the pastern bone to the coronary bone
d. None of the above
14. An exhausted or weak fetlock joint may
a. Seize up
b. Come close to hitting the ground
c. Bend forward
d. None of the above
15. Epiphysis is what
a. The small bone within the foot
b. Another name for the cannon bone
c. The rounded ends of long bones
d. The tendon that holds the pastern bone done to the coffin bone
16. Plaiting is another name for
a. Limping
b. Paddling
c. Winging Out
d. Winging in
17. Another name for offset is
a. Knock Kneed
b. Stands out
c. Sickle
d. Stands under
18. Larger bone density means
a. More ability to grow
b. More ability to reproduce
c. More ability to carry weight
d. None of the above
19. Which one is part of daily care of the hooves
a. Have the farrier trim the hoof
b. Watch for dishes, cracks or flares
c. Soak the hoof in epson salt
d. Paint on hoof oil
20. The hoof's break over is
a. When the hoof needs to be trimmed
b. When the hoof needs to be shod
c. When the heels lift off the ground
d. When the toe lifts off the ground
21. The hoof angle must match the
a. Cannon angle
b. Coffin angle
c. Pastern angle
d. Haunch angle
22. A post legged horse is likely to suffer from which
a. Navicular syndrome
b. Sidebone
c. Ringbone
d. All of the above
23. A disunited canter can lead to which problem
a. Elbow hitting
b. Knee hitting
c. Scalping
d. Cross firing
24. A horse that stands over is
a. Standing with legs together
b. Camped out
c. Camped in
d. Standing hip shot
25. What is the varnish like substance that protects the hoof wall
a. Sebum
b. Varnish
c. Periwinkle
d. Periople
26. How often is the frog shed?
a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Once a month
d. Never
27. How much can a horse carry without too much stress on the body and joints.
a. 5-10% body weight
b. 10-15% body weight
c. 15-20% body weight
d. 25-35% body weight
28. Always clean the hoof
a. Toe to heel
b. Heel to toe
c. Side to side
d. Doesn't matter
29. Another name for the long pastern bone is
a. P1
b. P2
c. P3
d. Pedal bone
30. Another name for the coffin bone is
a. Pedal
b. P3
c. Distal Phalanx
d. All of the above
Answers for the Midterm are: The only true answers are 1, 4, 6, 9.
Multiple choice answers are: 11B, 12D, 13B, 14B, 15C, 16D, 17A, 18C, 19B, 20C, 21C, 22B, 23D, 24B, 25D, 26B, 27C, 28B, 29A, 30D
ADDITIONAL VIDEO
sPANISH RIDING SCHOOL VIDEO
PRACTICE QUIZ
STUDY first and then try the Practice Test. You do not have to send it in.
PRACTICE TEST FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. Founder and laminitis have the same effect on the coffin bone.
2. White line disease is white line separation.
3. Sidebone is the ossification of the navicular bone.
4. Shoe the horse who gets a sole callus.
5. Quittor is the ossification of the Pedal Osteitis.
6. "No hoof, no horse!" is a good motto for taking care of the horse's hooves.
7. A swedge is a rounded shoe.
8. A keg is a machine forge.
Multiple Choice:
9. Which shoe is best to prevent sores and corns?
a. Flat
b. Rim
c. Plastic
d. Mushroom
10. Which shoes help flexor tendon damage by raising the heel?
a. Bar
b. Mushroom
c. Patten
d. None of the above
11. Which is important for caring for the hoof
a. Shed the frog.
b. Trim the frog.
c. Do not over trim the frog.
d. The frog should be higher than the bars.
12. A pigeon toed horse may suffer from what?
a. Spavins
b. Ringbone
c. Founder
d. Splints
13. Bow legged horses
a. Have stress on the outside of the knees
b. Have stress on the inside of the knees
c. Have stress on the outside of the hocks
d. Have stress on the inside of the hocks
14. Which ligament almost covers the pair of sesamoids?
a. Plantar
b. Palmar Annular
c. Interosseus
d. Chondrocompedal
15. Which can cause lameness
a. Lack of trimming
b. Trimming matching angles
c. Riding in soft sand
d. No riding
PRACTICE TEST FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False)
1. Founder and laminitis have the same effect on the coffin bone.
2. White line disease is white line separation.
3. Sidebone is the ossification of the navicular bone.
4. Shoe the horse who gets a sole callus.
5. Quittor is the ossification of the Pedal Osteitis.
6. "No hoof, no horse!" is a good motto for taking care of the horse's hooves.
7. A swedge is a rounded shoe.
8. A keg is a machine forge.
Multiple Choice:
9. Which shoe is best to prevent sores and corns?
a. Flat
b. Rim
c. Plastic
d. Mushroom
10. Which shoes help flexor tendon damage by raising the heel?
a. Bar
b. Mushroom
c. Patten
d. None of the above
11. Which is important for caring for the hoof
a. Shed the frog.
b. Trim the frog.
c. Do not over trim the frog.
d. The frog should be higher than the bars.
12. A pigeon toed horse may suffer from what?
a. Spavins
b. Ringbone
c. Founder
d. Splints
13. Bow legged horses
a. Have stress on the outside of the knees
b. Have stress on the inside of the knees
c. Have stress on the outside of the hocks
d. Have stress on the inside of the hocks
14. Which ligament almost covers the pair of sesamoids?
a. Plantar
b. Palmar Annular
c. Interosseus
d. Chondrocompedal
15. Which can cause lameness
a. Lack of trimming
b. Trimming matching angles
c. Riding in soft sand
d. No riding
Use for the next 4 questions
16. Which shoe has a toe rim and blocked heels?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
17. Which shoe has a heart bar?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
18. What is H?
a. Deep Digital Flexor
b. Superficial Digital Flexor
c. Interoseus Tendon
d. Superficial Digital Extensor
19. What is I?
a. Lateral Digital Flexor
b. Lateral Digial Extensor
c. Long Digital Flexor
d. Common Digital Extensor
20. What is J?
a. Deep Digital Flexor
b. Superficial Digital Flexor
c. Branches of the Interoseus Tendon
d. Superficial Digital Extensor
a. Deep Digital Flexor
b. Superficial Digital Flexor
c. Interoseus Tendon
d. Superficial Digital Extensor
19. What is I?
a. Lateral Digital Flexor
b. Lateral Digial Extensor
c. Long Digital Flexor
d. Common Digital Extensor
20. What is J?
a. Deep Digital Flexor
b. Superficial Digital Flexor
c. Branches of the Interoseus Tendon
d. Superficial Digital Extensor
Use this diagram for the next 7 questions
21. What is A?
a. Cannon
b. Sesamoid
c. Pedal
d. Navicular
22. What is D?
a. P3
b. Sesamoid
c. Pastern
d. Cannon
23. What is E?
a. Pastern
b. Fetlock
c. Coronary
d. Coronet
24. What is F?
a. Coronet
b. Coronary
c. Coffin
d. Pastern
25. What is G?
a. Coffin
b. Pedal
c. Distal Phalanx
d. All of the above
Answers for the Practice final are: The only true answers are 1 and 6. Multiple choice answers are: 19D, 10C, 11C, 12B, 13C, 14B, 15A, 16A, 17D, 18A, 19B, 20B, 21D, 22D, 23A, 24B, 25D
WHEN YOU READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THIS PAGE
a. Cannon
b. Sesamoid
c. Pedal
d. Navicular
22. What is D?
a. P3
b. Sesamoid
c. Pastern
d. Cannon
23. What is E?
a. Pastern
b. Fetlock
c. Coronary
d. Coronet
24. What is F?
a. Coronet
b. Coronary
c. Coffin
d. Pastern
25. What is G?
a. Coffin
b. Pedal
c. Distal Phalanx
d. All of the above
Answers for the Practice final are: The only true answers are 1 and 6. Multiple choice answers are: 19D, 10C, 11C, 12B, 13C, 14B, 15A, 16A, 17D, 18A, 19B, 20B, 21D, 22D, 23A, 24B, 25D
WHEN YOU READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM AT THE BOTTOM OF THIS PAGE
MODULE 5: EQUINE GENETICS Lessons
All lessons are on Youtube. To find your lesson, click on the time in the detail section.
Do: Lessons 1-4
Do: Practice Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 5 questions)
Do: Lessons 1-4
Do: Practice Quiz
Write: Final Exam (module 5 questions)
PrACTICE QUIZ
|
STUDY first and then try the PRACTICE TEST. You do not have to send it in.
|
PRACTICE TEST FOR REVIEW
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. Phenotype is the genetic makeup of the horse.
2. A cowlick is a whorl.
3. An amber eye is a wall-eye.
4. A blue eye is a glass eye.
5. Most lethal alleles are in homozygous form.
Multiple Choice
6. Black horses cannot produce bay foals unless
a. 1 parents is bay or grey
b. 1 parent is grey or bay
c. 1 parent is bay or chestnut
d. 1 parent is black or cream
7. A Bald-face is also called a
a. White-face
b. White-head
c. Bonnet
d. Shield
8. A coronet is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
9. A fetlock is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
10. A sock is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
11. Which color has a metallic glow
a. Chestnut
b. Blue Black
c. Champagne
d. None of the above
12. A dunalino has a yellow coat and
a. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a white mane and tail
b. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a black mane and tail
c. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a black and white mixed mane and tail
d. A white mane and tail
13. Mature champagne horses have what color of skin
a. Pink
b. Purple
c. White
d. Black
14. Perlino horses have what color of eyes
a. Blue
b. Amber
c. Brown
d. Hazel
15. A silver (Z) horse has
a. A grey coat
b. Primitive markings
c. Black and white in the mane and tail
d. Mottled skin
16. The bay gene is called
a. Agouti
b. Allele
c. Locus
d. Agregate
17. Sooty is
a. The same a smudge
b. The same as greasy
c. The same as bay
d. None of the above
18. Mealy mouth horses have which gene
a. Roan
b. Silver
c. Pangare
d. None of the above
19. Roan horses have
a. Skewbald patterns
b. Rabicano patterns
c. A metallic glow
d. White and colored hairs mixed
20. In order to get a roan foal
a. Both parents need to be roan
b. 1 parent must be roan
c. 1 parent must be pinto
d. 1 parent must be rabicano
21. A frame horse
a. Cannot have a blue eye
b. Can have a blue eye
c. Must have a blue eye
d. Must have two blue eyes
22. A bay with minimal black points is called a
a. Buckskin Bay
b. Dun Bay
c. Roan Bay
d. Wild Bay
How about test yourself at colors?
True or false: (T= True or F= False) From Lessons 1-4
1. Phenotype is the genetic makeup of the horse.
2. A cowlick is a whorl.
3. An amber eye is a wall-eye.
4. A blue eye is a glass eye.
5. Most lethal alleles are in homozygous form.
Multiple Choice
6. Black horses cannot produce bay foals unless
a. 1 parents is bay or grey
b. 1 parent is grey or bay
c. 1 parent is bay or chestnut
d. 1 parent is black or cream
7. A Bald-face is also called a
a. White-face
b. White-head
c. Bonnet
d. Shield
8. A coronet is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
9. A fetlock is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
10. A sock is
a. A white mark extending half way up the knee
b. A white mark up the top of the fetlock joint
c. A white mark extending over the heel but under the fetlock joint
d. A white line around the coronet band
11. Which color has a metallic glow
a. Chestnut
b. Blue Black
c. Champagne
d. None of the above
12. A dunalino has a yellow coat and
a. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a white mane and tail
b. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a black mane and tail
c. A dorsal and shoulder stripe and a black and white mixed mane and tail
d. A white mane and tail
13. Mature champagne horses have what color of skin
a. Pink
b. Purple
c. White
d. Black
14. Perlino horses have what color of eyes
a. Blue
b. Amber
c. Brown
d. Hazel
15. A silver (Z) horse has
a. A grey coat
b. Primitive markings
c. Black and white in the mane and tail
d. Mottled skin
16. The bay gene is called
a. Agouti
b. Allele
c. Locus
d. Agregate
17. Sooty is
a. The same a smudge
b. The same as greasy
c. The same as bay
d. None of the above
18. Mealy mouth horses have which gene
a. Roan
b. Silver
c. Pangare
d. None of the above
19. Roan horses have
a. Skewbald patterns
b. Rabicano patterns
c. A metallic glow
d. White and colored hairs mixed
20. In order to get a roan foal
a. Both parents need to be roan
b. 1 parent must be roan
c. 1 parent must be pinto
d. 1 parent must be rabicano
21. A frame horse
a. Cannot have a blue eye
b. Can have a blue eye
c. Must have a blue eye
d. Must have two blue eyes
22. A bay with minimal black points is called a
a. Buckskin Bay
b. Dun Bay
c. Roan Bay
d. Wild Bay
How about test yourself at colors?
For #23
23. The best description for this horse color is
a. Sooty Bay
b. Sooty Buckskin
c. Sooty Dun
d. Sooty Red Grey
a. Sooty Bay
b. Sooty Buckskin
c. Sooty Dun
d. Sooty Red Grey
For #24
24. The best description for this horse color is
a. Flaxen Grey
b. Silver
c. Flea-bitten Grey
d. Dappled Grey
a. Flaxen Grey
b. Silver
c. Flea-bitten Grey
d. Dappled Grey
For #25
25. The best description for this horse color is
a. Sooty Roan
b. Strawberry Roan
c. Bay Roan
d. Chestnut
a. Sooty Roan
b. Strawberry Roan
c. Bay Roan
d. Chestnut
For #26
26. The best description for this horse color is
a. Bay with baldface and 4 stockings
b. Chestnut with baldface and 4 stockings
c. Bay with whiteface and 4 socks
d. Splashed White
a. Bay with baldface and 4 stockings
b. Chestnut with baldface and 4 stockings
c. Bay with whiteface and 4 socks
d. Splashed White
For #27
27. The best description for this horse color is
a. Perlino
b. Palomino
c. Cremello
d. Dun
a. Perlino
b. Palomino
c. Cremello
d. Dun
For #28
28. The best description for this horse color is
a. Bay with minimal blanket
b. Bay leopard
c. Bay with extended blanket
d. Bay varnish roan
a. Bay with minimal blanket
b. Bay leopard
c. Bay with extended blanket
d. Bay varnish roan
For #29
29. The best description for this horse color is
a. Brindle
b. Giraffe markings
c. Ben d'or
d. Lacing
a. Brindle
b. Giraffe markings
c. Ben d'or
d. Lacing
For #30
30. The best description for this horse color is
a. Light Bay
b. Light Chestnut
c. Buckskin
d. Coyote Den
a. Light Bay
b. Light Chestnut
c. Buckskin
d. Coyote Den
For #31
31. The best description for this horse color is
a. Champagne
b. Silver
c. Dun
d. Chestnut
a. Champagne
b. Silver
c. Dun
d. Chestnut
For #32
32. The best description for this horse color is
a. Albino
b. Cremello
c. Mealy
d. Palomino
Answers are below
Answers for the Practice Final are: The only true answers are 1, 2, 5. Multiple choice are: 6C, 7A, 8D, 9B, 10A, 11C, 12A, 13B, 14A, 15C, 16A, 17A, 18C, 19D, 20B, 21B, 22D, 23B, 24D, 25B, 26D, 27A, 28C, 29A, 30D, 31A, 32C
WHEN YOU ARE READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM SEEN BELOW
a. Albino
b. Cremello
c. Mealy
d. Palomino
Answers are below
Answers for the Practice Final are: The only true answers are 1, 2, 5. Multiple choice are: 6C, 7A, 8D, 9B, 10A, 11C, 12A, 13B, 14A, 15C, 16A, 17A, 18C, 19D, 20B, 21B, 22D, 23B, 24D, 25B, 26D, 27A, 28C, 29A, 30D, 31A, 32C
WHEN YOU ARE READY WRITE THE FINAL EXAM SEEN BELOW
COMPLETION OF INTERNATIONAL RIDER III
~ Write the EXAM (all modules)
~ Mounted Test - Part 1 Assessment, Part 2 Flat, Part 3 Gymnastic Test (can be sent in together as one test)
~ Bronze II (Classical or Western Dressage)
~ Write the EXAM (all modules)
~ Mounted Test - Part 1 Assessment, Part 2 Flat, Part 3 Gymnastic Test (can be sent in together as one test)
~ Bronze II (Classical or Western Dressage)
You may challenge the exam without purchasing the book or doing the rest of the course material.
Your mark will count as your grade for the entire course.
A passing grade is 60%.
Your mark will count as your grade for the entire course.
A passing grade is 60%.
International Rider III Exam (all modules) |
For Question 49
For Question 50
For Question 63
For Question 69
For Question 70
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